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The Examination Paper of Nanfang Medical University (Surgery MCQ)
1. The investigation of choice in Thrombo-angotis-obliterans is a. Venography b. Arteriography c. Doppler Study× d. Plethy smography
2. Scalds occur due to a. Dry heat b. Moist heat c. Radiant heat d. Radiation
3. Reactionary hemorrhage may caused by all of the following except a. Infection b. Slipping of ligature c. Hypertension d. Clot dislodgement
4. Stress ulcer is stomach are seen in patients of a. Polytrauma b. Burns c. Head injury d. All of the above
5. The commonest causative agent of bacterial mastitis is- a. Staphylococcus aureus b. Streptococcus hemolyticus c. Steptococcus viridian's d. Esch coli
6. The carcinomatous breast in painful in which of the following a. Mastitis carcinomatous b. Medullary carcinoma c. Scirrhous carcinoma d. Atropic scirrhous carcinoma
7. Paget's disease of nipple is- a. Always bilateral b. Occurs in lactating women c. Vesicles appear around the nipple d. None of the above 8. During radical mastectomy which of the following should be preserved? a. Axilliary vein b. Cephalic vein c.Nerve to serratus anterior d.All
9.Thyroglossal cyst is not found at which of the following a. Beneath the foramen caecam b. In the floor of month c.Suprahyoid d. Retrosternal
10. Ringer lactate contains all except a. Sodium b. Potassium c. Bicarbonate d. Chloride
11. In Buerger's disease, there is obliteration of a. Small and medium sized arteries b. Deep veins c. Superficial veins d. All of the above
12. Mondor's disease of breast refers to - a. Subareolar mastitis b. Thrombophlebitis of superficial veins of breast c. Retromammary abscess arising from an infected haematoma d. Papillomatosis of breast
13. Pneumothorax is managed by one of the following: a. IPPV b. Intercostal tube drain c. Chest strapping d. Thoracoscopy
14. Following is true about keloid except a. Spreads in normal tissue b. Itching present c. Excision & primary closure is treatment of choice d. Intralesional steroid to be given
15. Example of tubulodermoid is a. External angular dermoid b. Thyroglossal cyst c. Ovarian dermoid d. Implantation cyst
16. Most common cause of death in burn patient is a. Septica-emic shock b. Uncontrolled hypovolemic shock c. Suffocation due to respiratory burns d. Associated head injury
17. Following are the crystalloid solutions except: a. Low molecular weight dextran b. Ringer's lactate c. Dextrose normal saline d. 5% dextrose
18. Pecularities of verrucous carcinoma are all except a. Very fast growth b. Growth is exophytic c. Well differentiated carcinoma d. Is squamous cell carcinoma
19. Nature of nipple discharge in case of duct carcinoma of breast is a. Serous b. Greenish c. Milky d. Bloody discharge
20. Bowen's disease of skin is a. Type of dermatitis b. Tumour of sweat glands c. Permalignant condition d. None of the above
21. Hesselbach's triangle is bounded by all except a. Lateral border of rectus abdominis b. Inferior Epigastric artery c. Arcuate ligament d. Inguinal ligament
22. Skin grafting is not done in infection with a. E. coli b. Beta hemolytic streptococci c. Staph d. none of the above
23. CEA is not a marker for a. Colon b. Breast c. Pancreas d. Adrenal 24. Fibroadenomas all are true except: a. Are benign monoclonal neoplasms b. Most commonly present in late adolescence or the early 20s c. Should be diagnosed by triple assessment d. At least 30% reduce in size over a 2 year period e. Can be safely managed conservatively
25. Ranula is a a. Distension cyst b. Retention cyst c. Inclusion cyst d. None of above
26. Milroy's disease is a. Scaly lesions of skin b. Cong. Venous thrombosis c. Cong. lymphoedema d. Filariasis in childhood
27. Bed sore is a. Meleny ulcer b. Decubitus ulcer c. Malignant ulcer d. Infective ulcer
28. Langer's lines are lines a. Paralled to underlying muscles b. Perpendicular to underlying Muscles c. Oblique to underlying muscles d. None of the above
29. Composite graft refers to a. Partial thickness skin graft b. Full thickness skin graft c. Skin grafting on face d. Skin graft with cartilage or bone
30. Lumber sympathectomy in Buerger's disease in done for a. Rest pain b. Intermittent claudication c. Skin ulceration d. Gangrene food
31. Large intestinal obstructions most often due to- a. Cancer b. Hernias c. Adhesions d.Vovulus e. Foreign bodies
32. Initial management of an obstructing rectal cancer may include- a. Passage of catheter/stent through the area b. Laser recanalization c. Proximal colostomy. d. Resection, with proximal colostomy e. Any of the above
33. Which of the following is not a criterion of for positive diagnostic peritoneal lavage? a. >100, 000 RBC/mm³ b. >500 WBC/mm³ c. Amylase <150 IU d. Presence of bile
34. Laparoscopic appendectomy may provide advantage to following patient groups? a. Obese patients b. Male patients c. Pediatric patients d. Thin patients e. Patients with a palpable abdominal mass.
35. Anorectal abscesses, true is- a. Should be treated initially with broad spectrum antibodies b. Should always be drained in the operating room. c. Are usually due to viral infections. d. May evolve into a fistula following simple drainage. e. All of the above
36. Effective treatment of anal fistulas requires? a. Identification of the internal opening (offending crypt) b. Understanding of local sphincter anatomy c. Adequate drainage of any associated abscess. d. All of the above
37. Pilonodal disease? a. Is a cystic process originating from the neuroenteric canal. b. Should be treated by excision. c. Is a soft tissue infection d. Is best treated with antibiotics
38. Hepatic metastases in Carcinoma colon a. Are considered as MI disease in the TNM staging system. b. Are always incurable c. Should always be resected if possible d. Are most commonly detected on physical examination.
39. Breast cancer screening includes? a. Breast self-examination b. Breast ultrasonography c. FNA of a suspicious breast mass d. Mammography obtained in a 35-year old patient with a self-discovered lump.
40. Staging of breast cancer may include all except- a. FNAC b. CT scan of the liver c. Axillary node dissection d. Serum alkaline phosphatase
41. The most immediately life-threatening complication of gallstone disease is? a. Acute cholecystitis b. Acute cholangitis c. Gallstone pancreatitis d. Gallstone ileus
42. Most benign bile duct strictures are the result of? a. Gallstone disease b. Chronic pancratitis c. Sclerosing cholangitis d. Injury during cholecystectomy
43. The most useful initial imaging technique for biliary tract disease is? a. Ultrasonography b. CT scan c. Abdominal radiography d. ERCP
44. The commonest cause of bladder stone is a. Malnutrition b. Lower urinary tract obstruction c. Infection d. None
45. The most important definitive treatment in the management of septic cholangitis is? a. ERCP and endoscopic sphincterotomy b. Removal of all common bile duct stones. c. Broad spectrum intravenous antibiotics d. Biliary ductal decompensation
46. Bloody nipple discharge? a. Is usually due to a malignancy b. Can be studied conclusively with mammography c. Should be evaluated with galactography first. d. Is an indication for excisional biopsy when associated with an abnormal mammogram.
47. The best initial measure to control variceal hemorrhage after diagnosis is? a. Sclerotherapy b. Balloon tamponade c. Emergency surgery d. Le Veen Shunt.
48. Adenomatous polyps? a. Usually progress to cancer b. When larger than 2 cm, should be removed c. Can occur anywhere in the colon or rectum d. Usually warrant surgical resection
49. Most patients with diverticulosis? a. Suffer from recurrent bleeding b. Will eventually require surgery c. Are asymptomatic d. Have nightly fever and chills
50. The major distinction between benign and malignant esophageal tumors is? a. The former generally arise from the submucosal layers of the esophagus, whereas the latter invariably arise from the mucosal layer. b. The degree of esophageal obstruction is less in benign than in malignant tumors. c. Benign tumors occur in the upper portions of the esophagus and malignant tumors in the lower portion. d. None of the above
51. Adenocarcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma of the esophagus are histologically distinct? a. And require specific treatment for each type of malignancy. b. And have vastly different biological behaviour c. And arise from different elements of the mucosa d. But their treatment and prognosis are not too dissimilar.
52. Which of the following symptoms indicate poor prognosis in Wilm's tumor a. Pain b. Pyrexia c. Haematuria d. Pylyuria
53. In patient with suspected small bowel obstruction, the best course of action is? a. Immediate operation in all patients. b. Observe patient and carry out investigative test until diagnosis is established. c. Initial resuscitation and observation followed by urgent operation in all patients who do not improve or in whom doubt remains. d. Passage of tubes to decompress the bowel and help establish the diagnosis.
54. Thimble bladder is caused by a. Acute cystitis b. Chronic tubercular cystitis c. Bladder carcinoma d. All
55. The following are risk factors for the development of thyroid carcinoma except a. A family history of papillary thyroid carcinoma b. A family history of medullary thyroid carcinoma c. Exposure to ionizing radiation. d. History of low iodine intake
56. Which of the following is true regarding FNA of a thyroid nodule? a. It is not a very useful study in the evaluation of a thyroid nodule b. The best results are obtained with a skilled and experienced cytopathologist c. The size of the lesion does not influence the accuracy of the study. d. If a benign diagnosis is obtained, no further evaluation and follow-up is required.
57. The following are indications for surgery in thyroid except- a. Suspicion of cancer b. Airway compromise c. Failure of medical therapy. d. Diffuse goiter
58. Pyelephlebitis may arise from any of the following except? a. Appendicitis b. Diverticulitis c. Colon cancer d. Tubo-ovarian abscess
59. In treating adenocarcinoma the best predictor of the likelihood of cure is? a. The extent of the procedure to encompass all tumor and lymphoid drainage b. The biologic behavior of the tumor c. Postoperative chemothreapy and radiotherapy d. The location of the tumor in the stomach, with antral lesion being more favorable than those of the cardioesophageal region.
60. Upper gastrointestinal is considered more serious than lower gastrointestinal bleeding because? a. It is more common b. It is more apt to be associated with other diseases. c. The nature of the lesions can produce exsanguinating hemorrhage. d. The bleeding is less apt to stop spontaneously
61. Most common predisposing cause of torsion testis is a. Inversion of testis b. High investment of tunica vaginalis c. Trauma d. None
62. Malignant hyperthermia is caused by a. Suxamethonium b. Ether c. Halothane d.Cyclopropane
63. "Onion skin" type periosteal reaction is often associated with - a. Giant cell tumor b. Osteosarcoma c. Ewings sarcoma d. Chondrosarcoma
64. A 65 yr old patient with fracture neck femur, treatment of choice is a. closed reduction b. closed reduction and Internal fixation c. closed reduction d. replacement of head and neck of femur with prosthesis
65. Tuberculosis of the spine commonly affects all of the following parts of the vertebrae except- a. Body b. Lamina c. Spinous process d. Pedicle
66. In clavicle fracture most common complication is a. Malunion b. nonunion c. Brachial plexus injury d. Stiffness of shoulder
67. Most reliable method for detecting bony metastases is a. MRI b. CT c. radiography d. SPECT
68. A football player twists knee over ankle, continues playing and develops painful swelling of knee joint after 2 days. Diagnosis is- a. medial meniscus tear b. anterior cruciate ligament tear c. medial collateral ligament tear d. posterior cruciate ligament tear
69. Avascular necrosis of femoral neck is commonest in which of the following fractures- a. gorden 1 & 2 b. gorden 3& 4 c. subtrochanteric fractures d. basotrochanteric fractures
70. NOT a feature of Osteo-arthritis - a. joint space widening b. osteophyte formation c. subchondral sclerosis d. cyst formation.
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